The Geneva convention was established to minimise atrocities in conflicts. Israeli settlements in Gaza are illegal and violate the Geneva convention. Legality of Israeli settlements Article 51 of the Geneva convention prohibits indiscriminate attacks on civilian population yet Israel attacked hospitals with children inside. Whether you agree or not that Hamas were present, children cannot be viewed as combatants.so when no care was taken to protect them, does this not constitute a violation? According to save the children, 1 in 50 children in Gaza had been killed or injured. This is a very high proportion and does not show care being taken to prevent such casualties and therefore constitutes a violation.

So my question is simply, do supporters of Israel no longer support our believe in the Geneva convention, did you never, or how do you reconcile Israeli breaches of the Geneva convention? For balance I should add “do you not believe such violations are occurring and if so how did you come to this position?”

Answers other than only "they have the right to go after Hamas " please. The issue is how they are going after Hamas, not whether they should or not.

EDIT: Title changed to remove ambiguity about supporting Israel vs supporting their actions

  • letsgo@lemm.ee
    37·
    2 months ago

    It’s not stolen. Brief history lesson:

    The lands of Israel and Jordan used to be part of the Ottoman Empire. The Ottomans sided with the Nazis.

    Brief aside: we know the Arabs believe that if you win a war, you win the land, and if you lose a war, you lose the land, because that’s what they want to happen with Israel. So this principle applies to them as well.

    When the Nazis lost, the Ottomans also lost, and that’s where the British and French Mandates began. The land was no longer owned by the Arabs because, according to the principle they live by, they lost the war, therefore they lost the land.

    The British Mandate for Palestine comprised an amount of previously Ottoman land, of which they allocated one third to the new country Israel (which includes Gaza and the West Bank), and two thirds to the new country Transjordan, later renamed Jordan. The land of Israel was not stolen by the Jews from the Arabs, it was lost by the Arabs in a war they lost. But they got two thirds of that land back, i.e. Jordan.

    • jerkface@lemmy.caEnglish
      71·
      2 months ago

      It’s remarkable how respectful you are of Arab views that you don’t also hold but which happen to be convenient for you.

      • Count042@lemmy.ml
        01·
        2 months ago

        They also completely lied.

        The Ottoman empire didn’t exist after the Great War.

    • sunzu2@thebrainbin.org
      82·
      2 months ago

      Israel forcefully displaced Palestinians and moved in “lord’s chosen” people to live there.

      I am not sure what else to call it lol

      Good thing is that people are wising up about how israel came to be and public opinion is turning against the genocide state and its parasitic relationship with the US.

      One day Israel will pay for this once US stops protecting it. And many people will say FAFO

    • Count042@lemmy.ml
      1·
      2 months ago

      The Ottoman empire sided with the Nazis?

      How has no one commented on this ahistorical nonsense.

      The Ottoman empire dissolved in 1922.

      After The Great War aka World War One, the British took over the area called Mandatory Palestine in 1920.

      Everything about this post is insanely wrong.

        • Count042@lemmy.ml
          01·
          2 months ago

          For the historical record:

          letsgo intentionally confusing the Central Powers with the Axis and deceptively editing a quote to try and sell the lie.

          All in order to justify a genocide.

        • Count042@lemmy.ml
          01·
          2 months ago

          Maybe you could update it with yours:

          https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoman_Empire

          In the aftermath of World War I, the victorious Allied Powers occupied and partitioned the Ottoman Empire, which lost its southern territories to the United Kingdom and France. The successful Turkish War of Independence, led by Mustafa Kemal Atatürk against the occupying Allies, led to the emergence of the Republic of Turkey in the Anatolian heartland and the abolition of the Ottoman monarchy in 1922, formally ending the Ottoman Empire.

          https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandatory_Palestine

          Mandatory Palestine[a][4] was a geopolitical entity that existed between 1920 and 1948 in the region of Palestine under the terms of the League of Nations Mandate for Palestine.

          After an Arab uprising against the Ottoman Empire during the First World War in 1916, British forces drove Ottoman forces out of the Levant.[5] The United Kingdom had agreed in the McMahon–Hussein Correspondence that it would honour Arab independence in case of a revolt but, in the end, the United Kingdom and France divided what had been Ottoman Syria under the Sykes–Picot Agreement—an act of betrayal in the eyes of the Arabs. Another issue was the Balfour Declaration of 1917, in which Britain promised its support for the establishment of a Jewish “national home” in Palestine. Mandatory Palestine was then established in 1920, and the British obtained a Mandate for Palestine from the League of Nations in 1922.[6]

          Also, this is literally copied from your link:

          For the World War II alliance, see Axis powers. The Central Powers, also known as the Central Empires,[1][notes 1] were one of the two main coalitions that fought in World War I (1914–1918). It consisted of the German Empire, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Bulgaria; this was also known as the Quadruple Alliance.[2][notes 2]

          Jesus, the link you provided was FOR the great war.

          Did you even read it? Of course you did, you bar faith liar, the text literally from before your quotes was the time period that you intentionally removed.