• Crul@lemm.ee
    7·
    1 year ago

    I also think that’s correct… if we are talking about real numbers.

    People are probably thinking about integers. I’m not sure about OP.

    EDIT: I think it also works with p-adic numbers.

      • Crul@lemm.ee
        4·
        1 year ago

        I think you’re confusing “arbitrarily large” with “infinitely large”. See Wikipedia Arbitrarily large vs. (…) infinitely large

        Furthermore, “arbitrarily large” also does not mean “infinitely large”. For example, although prime numbers can be arbitrarily large, an infinitely large prime number does not exist—since all prime numbers (as well as all other integers) are finite.

      • Crul@lemm.ee
        2·
        1 year ago

        For integers I disagree (but I’m not a mathematician). The set of integers with infinite digits is the empty set, so AFAIK, it has probability 0.